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BUS 599: Strategic Management Exam

BUS 599: Strategic Management Exam

BUS 599: Strategic Management Exam

BUS 599: Strategic Management Exam

 

Question 1

Which of the following IS NOT an argument in favor of corporate social responsibility?

(a) Imposes unequal costs among competitors.

(b) Responds to changing stakeholders’ demands.

(c) Corrects social problems caused by business.

(d) Discourages government regulation.

Question 2

The ethical roots of the classical model of corporate social responsibility are found in which statement?

(a) The idea that the interests of stakeholders are as important as the interests of a corporation’s stockholders.

(b) The free market theory which holds that managers are ethically obliged to make as much money as possible for their.

(c) The ethical imperative to cause no harm.

(d) The ethical imperative to prevent harm.

Question 4

Which one of the following propositions correctly describes the concept of a right?

(a) Rights protect a person’s wants.

(b) There is really no distinction between a person’s wants and interests. Rights protect both.

(c) Rights protect a person’s interests.

(d) My rights never correspond to your duties and your duties never correspond to my rights.

 

Question 5

Human rights are:

(a) The standards of treatment to which all people are entitled.

(b) Can safely be ignored by international companies.

(c) Defined in the united Nations Global Compact.

(d) Of no interest to customers of international companies.

Question 6

Which statement characterizes the moral reasoning typically found in a child?

(a) When in ROME, do as the Romans do.

(b) I’II scratch your back, if you’II scratch mine.

(c) Seek the greatest good for the greatest number.

(d) Respect the rights of others.

 

Question 7

The Iron Law of Responsibility says that:

 

(a) In the long run, those who do not use power responsibly will lose it.

(b) In the short run, sacrifice social goals for economic goals.

(c) Law is most important, more than social or economic responsibility.

(d) In the long run, economic responsibility leads to social responsibility.

Question 8

External rewards and internal rewards relate to which part of the ethical decision-making framework?

(a) Individual factors

(b) Significant others

(c) Cognitive moral development

(d) Intentions

(e) Opportunity

Question 10

Which one of the following statements about multinational corporations is FALSE?

(a) MNCs are corporate organizations that operate on a global scale without significant ties to any one nation or region.

(b) MNCs are inherently unethical.

(c) MNCs are cauterized by a global strategy of focusing on opportunities throughout the world.

(d) Some MNCs are so large and powerful that their revenues are greater than the gross domestic products of some countries.

(e) Because of their size and power, MNCs have been the subject of much ethical criticism and the source of a number of ethical issues.

Question 11

The most intense rivalry results from:

(a) Numerous equally balanced competitors, slow industry growth, and high fixed or storage costs.

(b) Few competitors, slow industry growth, lack of differentiation, and high fixed or storage costs.

(c) Numerous equally balanced competitors, manufacturing capacity increasing only in large increments, and low exit barriers.

(d) A high level of differentiation.

 

 

Question 12

 

A crash R&D program by one firm cannot replicate a successful technology developed by another firm when research findings cumulate.

(a) Social complexity.

(b) Path dependency.

(c) Physical uniqueness.

(d) Causal ambiguity

 

Question 13

Emotional intelligence, as proposed by Daniel Goleman, is manifest in self-awareness, self-regulation, social skills, empathy, and:

(a) Ambition

(b) Motivation

(c) Sympathy.

(d) Open mindedness

 

Question 14

 

Which of the following is not characteristic of well-constructed goals?

 

(a) They are precise and measurable.

(b) They are the result of a group decision process.

(c) They specify a time period.

(d) They are challenging but realistic.

(e) They address critical issues.

 

Question 15

 

There are several perspectives of competition. One perspective is zero-sum thinking. Zero-sum thinking means that:

 

(a) All parts of the organizations gain at no loss.

(b) In order for someone to gain, others must experience no gain or benefit.

(c) One can only gain at the expense of someone else.

(d) Everyone in the organization shares gains and losses equally.

Question 16

Kaizen means:

(a) radical innovation.

(b) Incremental innovation.

(c) Open innovation.

(d) Continuous improvement.

Question 17

Costs associated with efforts to prevent errors are:

(a) Appraisal costs.

(b) Direct costs.

(c) Prevention costs.

(d) Expected costs.

Question 18

Emerging sociocultrual changes in the environment include:

(a) Changes in the ethnic composition.

(b) The increasing educational attainment of women in the past decade.

(c) Progressively less disposable income by consumers.

(d) Changes in the geographic distribution of the population.

 

Question 19

 

In value chain analysis, the activities of organizations are divided into two major categories of value activities: primary and support. Which of the following is a primary activity?

 

(a) Purchasing key inputs.

(b) Recruiting and training employees.

(c) Repairing the product for the consumer.

(d) Monitoring the cost of producing the product through a cost accounting system.

Question 20

The balanced scorecard enables managers to consider their business from all of the following perspectives except:

(a) Customer perspective.

(b) Internal perspective.

(c) Innovation and leering perspective.

(d) Ethical perspective.

Question 21

Imagine your boss wants you to investigate ways your company might be able enhance customer satisfaction, create an attractive loyalty program, and reward your customers. Most likely, your company’s immediate goal is to:

(a) Delight customers.

(b) Make more money.

(c) Enhance product offerings.

(d) Redefine its position.

Question 22

Giant Grocery Retailer tells Small Cereal Manufacturer that it will not stock or sell Small Cereal Manufacture’s product line until and unless a better trade margin is provided. What type of power is Giant Grocery Retailer exhibiting?

(a) Purchasing power.

(b) Information power.

(c) Coercive power.

(d) Distribution power.

 

 

Question 23

 

Company ABC is interested in better understanding how different groups of customers feel about its product. In order to this, company ABC will need to :

 

(a) Position its product in the market.

(b) Segment the market.

(c) Mass market.

(d) Target market.

Question -24

The terms manufacturer , service provider ,government agency, and wholesaler are designations used to segment business and organization markets according to:

(a) The type of customer.

(b) Demographics.

(c) Product use.

(d) Buying situations.

 

Question-25

Which of the following is defined to be an exchange between a firm and its customers?

(a) Advertising.

(b) Consumer behavior.

(c) Marketing.

(d) Distribution.

Questions:-26

Which is an approach for creating a perceptual map?

(a) Attribute based.

(b) Demography based.

(c) Focus group based.

(d) Survey based.

 

Question-27

Marketing information should be gathered _________ so the can be in the know and poised for action.

(a) Quarterly

(b) Annually

(c) Constantly

(d) Every two years

Question-28

There are two major class of franchising. One is business format franchising. What is the other one?

(a) Market franchising.

(b) Product franchising.

(c) In- house franchising.

(d) Multisite franchising.

 

Questin-29

Which of the following is not part of Michael porter’s five forces model?

(a) Industry competitors.

(b) Threat of competition imitation strategies.

(c) Threat of new entrants.

(d) Bargaining power of buyer and suppliers.

Question-30

In order for an exchange to occur (marketing):

(a) A complex societal system must be involved.

(b) Organized marketing activities must also accur.

(c) A profit-oriented organization must be involved.

(d) Each party must have something of value to the other party.

Question-31

At a price above the equilibrium price, there is ______.

(a) A shortage

(b) A surplus

(c) Excess demand

(d) Super –equilibrium

(e) None of the above

Question-32

At a price for which quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied ,a __________ is experienced , which pushes the price______ toward its equilibrium value.

(a) Surplus; downward

(b) Surplus: upward

(c) Shortage: downward

(d) Shortage: upward

Question-33

The minimum wage is an example of a ___________.

(a) Price door

(b) Price wall

(c) Price floor

(d) Price ceiling

Question-34

The supply of product X is perfectly inelastic if the price of X rises by _________.

(a) 5 percent and quantity supplied rises by 7 percent

(b) 8 percent and quantity supplied rises by 8 percent

(c) 7 percent and quantity supplied rises by 5 percent

(d) 10 percent and quantity supplied remains the same

Question-35

If the purchase and sale of a currently illegal drug such as marijuana were decriminalized , we would expect _______.

(a) An increase in demand and supply of this drug

(b) An increase in demand and a decrease in supply of this drug

(c) A decrease in demand and an increase in supply of this drug

(d) A decrease in demand and supply of this drug

Question-36

John just bought shares of stock in IBM for $10,000 and paid a $90 commission to his broker . How did this affect GDP (Gross domestic Product)?

(a) It had no impact on GDP.

(b) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $90

(c) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $10,000

(d) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $9,990

(e) GDP (Gross Domestic Product ) increased by $10,0903

Question-37

Which one of the following will cause a movement down along an economy’s consumption schedule?

(a)An increase in stock prices.

(b) A decrease in stock prices.

(c) An increase in consumer indebtedness.

(d) A decrease in disposable income.

 

Question-38

The largest component of national income is __________.

(a) Rental income

(b) Proprietor’s income

(c) Compensation of employees

(d) Corporate profits

(e) Net interest

Question-39

According to the theory of efficiency wages:

(a) The most profitable firms keep wages low.

(b) Above –equilibrium wages are paid by the firm to increase worker productivity.

(c) Some occupations are predominantly male and some are predominantly female.

(d) Differences in human capital explain why firms pay high wages.

 

Question-40

If the CPI (Consumer Price Index ) is 170 and nominal income is $ 75,000, approximately what does real income equal?

(a) $127,500

(b) $74,825

(c) $75,175

(d) $44,118

Question-41

Dexter Hemingway is the CEO and Todd Bradley is the CFO of Maxwell Inc. Unknowingly, both signed the financial report for the financial year 2006/07, Which was misleading. Can they be held liable for punishment?

(a) Under the Sarbanes – Oxley Act, both of them must reimburse the company.

(b) Under the Sarbanes – Oxley Act, only the CEO will be liable for punishment.

(c) Under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organization Act(RICO) ,both of them are required to reimburse the company.

(d) Under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organization Act(RICO),only the CFO will be liable for punishment.

 

 

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